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LSAT Explanation PT 38, S4, Q25: One reason why European music has

LSAT Question Stem

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT: 

Logical Reasoning Question Type

This is a Must Be False question. 

Correct Answer

The correct answer to this question is D. 

LSAT Question Complete Explanation

This question is a "Must Be False" (MBF) question, which means we are looking for the answer choice that is not compatible with the information provided in the passage. To answer this question, let's first understand the passage's main points: European music is a sophisticated achievement because its original function gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. This means that European music can stand independently of its original function due to its internal coherence.

Now, let's evaluate each answer choice:

a) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.

This answer choice could be true because the passage does not discuss African music. It only discusses European music's influence and sophistication.

b) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.

This answer choice could also be true, as the passage does not preclude other reasons for the global influence of European music.

c) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.

This answer choice could be true, as the passage does not discuss Chinese music. It only discusses European music's original function and its influence on style.

d) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.

This answer choice is not compatible with the passage. The passage states that European music's sophistication is due to its ability to stand independently of its original function. This answer choice suggests that the most sophisticated music is unintelligible outside its original function, which contradicts the passage's reasoning.

e) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

This answer choice could be true, as the passage does not discuss the appeal of works of art in general. It only discusses European music's internal coherence and independence from its original function.

Based on our analysis, the correct answer is (D). It directly contradicts the passage's reasoning about the sophistication of European music, which is based on its ability to stand independently of its original function due to its internal coherence.